Is there sound?

Submitted by Valorie on Thu, 01/17/2008 at 1:03pm.

Before Chaco wrote her blog on the testing of infants hearing, I was going to compose a blog posing the  question "Will there be sound if a tree falls in the forest if no one is there to listen?"   There is a recent commercial on TV with this same question--I think it is for a car.  I am in my last and most difficult class called Sensation and Perception and after studying 9 chapters on vision the 10th is finally on sound perception.  This question was again posed at the beginning of the chapter.  So what do you think is the answer and give your reason why you think it is correct?  (If I don't quit spending so much time on TF and get this done I am not going to graduate.)  Jodi and I discussed this question this weekend but not sure if she remembers the answer, so Jodi give the others a chance.

» posted in Valorie's blog

Comments:

by Aimee - 4 years ago
Portland OR United States
Member Since: Feb 2007
Member Points: 5646
I would say yes, although it probably depends upon your definition of sound. I would think that sound is the waves that travel through the air, so the falling tree will create those sound waves. If nobody is there to listen, then the sound waves will not be translated from waves into "sounds" as understood by a human or animal. But regardless, the waves will be in existence, so I would say that the tree did make a sound.
by camharsev - 4 years ago
West Linn, OR United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 1472
Perfect argument!  I agree completely!
by scott - 4 years ago
Salem, OR United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 3721
Yes definitely, sound waves can affect organisms other than a human ear... I think that it is a ridiculous question and I dont know how you can debate it.  But Aimee brings up a good point, I am sure someone will come up with some mumbo jumbo "sound" definition.  Leave a cassette recorder and come back and get it later. 
by Chaco - 4 years ago
LO - aka The Bubble United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 3068
I definitely agree with Aimee. Plus, the question says if "no one" is around, and of course in a forest there would be animals around and they would hear it!
by geoff - 4 years ago
Fountain Valley, CA United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 11604
Sound is not defined as "waves that are received by homo sapien auditory organs."   So what about this - what if we put remote control robotic machinery near a tree, put a camera there, hit record, and then drive 50 miles away.  We use our remote control to have the robot push a tree over, and it's all caught on camera.  Then we drive back and watch the footage.  Would there be no sound, because a human wasn't present? If there were deer standing nearby, and a tree fell, i'm sure they would run.  Or if the tree fell on a whoopee cushion, it would still make the fart sound.  Sound is waves.   Doesn't matter where those waves go.
by Valorie - 4 years ago
Orange County United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 13594

Ok, now I finished the chapter so I am an authority on sound:

If by "sound" we mean a perceptual response then since there is no one present to “hear” the falling tree, the sound waves created by the tree as it fell would not be transduced into a perceptual response, so therefore there was no sound.

Sometimes "sound" refers to a physical simulus.  In this case the tree falling to the ground causes pressure changes whether or not someone is there to hear it, therefore using this definition there is sound. 

So Geof, you are partically incorrect that sound is not defined as waves received by homo sapiens.  It is true it does not need to be homos but as Chaco said it does have to be some living creature with auditory organs. 

Aimee was the most correct stating that it depends on the definition of sound.  Cami agreed with Aimee so she is also correct.  I don't know how to credit Scott, other than he tried.

by geoff - 4 years ago
Fountain Valley, CA United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 11604
EH??  I said sound is NOT defined by "something received by a homo sapien.. etc etc."   I said sound is waves, and it doesnt matter who what when where or why they are created.  Sound is a matter of physics, not psycho-analysis.  Its as crazy as saying water is only in the ocean if i am swimming there.  Sound is waves of atoms moving.  It's real.  Tangible.  Has nothing to do with humans ears.
by Valorie - 4 years ago
Orange County United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 13594

According to the text there are 2 different ways of referring to sound--physical stimulus and perceptual response. Yes, you are right it does not have to be homos that receive it but for the perceptual meaning of sound the waves do have to reach an auditory system of a living creature--it has to reach some ears. You are correct using the physical stimulus definition of sound, that waves were created. 

by Blueidjode - 4 years ago
St. George, UT United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 7013
I know, I know!
by Blueidjode - 4 years ago
St. George, UT United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 7013
Oh wait, mom already gave the answer.   :-)
by deebkobe - 4 years ago
Fremont, CA United States
Member Since: Jun 2007
Member Points: 39
If a man is talking alone in the forest, and there's no woman to hear him, is he still wrong?

:)
by camharsev - 4 years ago
West Linn, OR United States
Member Since: Jan 2007
Member Points: 1472
hahaha!  You are so funny Danielle!  I love it!
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